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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 06:01

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Do you think some men have sex with prostitutes because they're too afraid to talk to women? Money does the talking for them.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Is it possible to achieve spiritual enlightenment while being in a romantic relationship?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.